Is the following a theorem of predicate logic: (x)(Ax ⊃Bx) ∨(∃x)Ax ? Yes, it is provable without premises, and the proof is straightforward.
- (x)(Ax ⊃Bx) ∨(∃x)Ax
- * ¬ (x)(Ax ⊃Bx) ......... ACP
- * (∃x)(Ax • ¬ Bx) ......... 2CQ
- * An • ¬ Bn ......... 3EI x/n
- * An ......... 4Simpl.
- * (∃x)Ax ......... 5EG
- ¬ (x)(Ax ⊃Bx) ⊃(∃x)Ax ......... 2-6CP
- ¬ ¬ (x)(Ax ⊃Bx) ∨(∃x)Ax ......... 7MI
- (x)(Ax ⊃Bx) ∨(∃x)Ax ......... 8DN
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